I’m thinking about languages like the Pre-Greek substrate, sometimes called “Pelasgian” or “Aegean”, or generally about any language spoken by the inhabitants of “Old Europe” before the Indo-European migrations.
To make a more specific example, let’s assume that a non-Indo-European language was spoken across some islands of the Aegean, like the Cyclades and Rhodes; would it be realistic to think that the language might have survived after the Mycenean (and therefore Indo-European) colonization/conquest of the islands around 1450 BC, and perhaps continued to be spoken by farmers and other illiterate parts of the population during the Mycenean rule and during the Greek Dark Ages (so up to the 8th century BC)?
Herodotus, for example, wrote (56-58) about the Pelasgians and reported that the inhabitants of Placia and Scylace (in Ancient Mysia, so present-day Sea of Marmara) and of the ‘city of Creston’ (it is unclear if Creston referred to Kreston in Ancient Macedonia or to the Etruscan city of Cortona/Curtun) still spoke a non-Greek language, perhaps being or having originated from Pelasgian, during his times.
For the people of Creston and Placia have a language of their own in common, which is not the language of their neighbours; and it is plain that they still preserve the fashion of speech which they brought with them in their migration into the places where they dwell.
Thanks in advance for any answers.
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